Please check out this example of attempting to calculate player advantage:
Yes, Intermediate, that's what I was looking for - the kind of equation you provided. But I am confused, which isn't surprising:). Did I incorrectly apply said formula below?
For example, if I play, say, 574 hands, and I hypothetically bet the table maximum (say, $5,000 - what I actually saw in Tunica this weekend at Harrah's High Limit, for example) on 287 of those hands that I thought I would win and, for the other 287 hands (the ones that I predicted I would lose), I bet the table minimum: $50.
Let's say I did well and came up with these results: For the $5,000 bets, I won 19 units = +$95,000. For the $50 bets, I lost 16.5 units = -$825.
So, is the following correct to calculate advantage: $95,000-$825/(287 X $5,000 + 287 X $50) = $94,175/1449350=0.0649774, or 6.50% player advantage?
Assuming the above is correct, won't player advantage vary based on bet size? I mean, let's say we keep the minimum bet ($50) the same for those hands we predict we are going to lose, but instead of betting $5,000 on the 'good' hands, we bet $100 instead. Won't our player advantage go way down (to about 2.50%) even though we were still correct with our predictions but using a much smaller bankroll? So, then, is player advantage a function of the amount of spread between bets?