Hi guys,
I would like to ask you a question regarding an article MathProf posted on this website. Here is a link to the article.
http://www.bj21.com/bj_reference/pages/overheadeffectonriskofruin.shtml
Here is a summary of the relevant passage from MP's article:
Expectation/Hr = $30
Expenses/Hr = $15
Kelly-factor = 1.0
BR = $3k
After accounting for hourly expenses, MP implies that the Kelly-factor changes from 1.0 to 2.0 (ROR of 36.8%). Unfortunately, he does not show the math he uses to calculate the 36.8% ROR.
Can you please explain how to determine the new ROR (adjusted k-f)which takes expenses into account? I don't think the math is too complicated, I just don't know how to do it.
If you guys don't mind, I have one more question for good measure:
Expectation/Hr = $100
Expenses/Hr = $20
Kelly-factor = 0.25
BR = $100k
What does the Kelly-factor become AFTER taking expenses into account? Please show the math you use to figure it out.
Thanks to whomever can answer,
MJ
