I need a little help putting this altogether.
optimal betting size = Bank*advantage/variance (i hope)
3000 bank times .5% advantage divided by 1.28 variance = $11.7
3000 bank times 1% advantage divided by 1.28 variance = $23.4
3000 bank times 1.5% advantage divided by 1.28 variance = $35.1
3000 bank times 2% advantage divided by 1.28 variance = $46.8
i play 4 deck 70% pen, s17, das,doa, ns,
my first question is how do i find the variance for this particular game. (i am using 1.28 because that is what wong uses as his benchmark)
my second question is at what T.C. do i have a 1% advantage using Hi-low in this game. I am assuming +3?
assuming i could wong at all counts of +2 and above, my optimal betting size would be this?
+2 = $10
+3 = $25
+4 = $35
+5 = $45
i am hoping this is correct, some thoughts would be appreciated greatly. would this be considered betting 1 kelly?
also how do i find my ROR and average win per hour using these numbers.
thanks.
