50 pen, but able to count without betting.

My friend asked me a question and I wasn't sure how to answer. Basically, he wants to know, hypothetically, if he was able to count the cards without betting, but then bet when there was an advantage (say 2%), would the fact that it was a 50% pen game matter as opposed to say 80%? By that he means at that given point in time, when the count is high at the 2%, whether it's a 50 pen game or 80 pen game doesn't matter, that particular bet at that point in time (2% advantage) still holds the same value regardless of the pen, correct? Again, only specific to that bet at that point in time. Thank you.