Ok, this seems like it's really easy, but i just want confirmation. Say I'm in a 6D s17 game, heads up, and i have 12 vs. dealer 6. BS says stand, but if i have even a running count of -1, making a TC of about -.16, count strategy says to hit anything below 0, which this does qualify. Now, i have PBJ, and its tables state that standing is a -.152 to -.155 BS play, composition dependant, and hitting is -.169 to -.174. Now, i don't have my copy of Fundamentals of BJ around and i don't really remember what other books i have,(I have 'em all) would have 6d Rate of removal charts, but i seem to remember that no card in a 6d game was worth more than about .08 either way. So, let's say we take a best-case composition-dependant scenario of 10,2 vs. 6(-.155 and -.169 stand and hit, respectively);if you add .08 of expectation to the hit, (which i think the Rate of removal was less then, but just for safety's sake), you're still at only -.161, which would make it better to stand. I know I'm splitting hairs here, but jeez, it seems like we don't have many hairs to work with here. This also seems to me then to be a play that you would be pretty close to 50/50 hit-stand, which would make a player look a bit voodoo, which i suppose is good, but it looks a lot worse than it is to hit, obviously. SW says to truncate, not round for his indices, so I'm pretty sure i have this right, but maybe I'm misreading his intentions and with negative numbers, but I can't see how. I'd like to think that, for a newbie, i'm pretty well grounded in BJ theory, but this one puzzles me.
