I have a question regarding basic strategy that struck me recently. In a 6 deck game, you are supposed to double down on 11 vs. 10, but hit on 11 vs. 11. It seems to me that these situations are similar if the dealer checks his hole card and does not have blackjack. In the 11 vs. 10 case, if the dealer does not have BJ, his hole card is (2-10). In the 11 vs. 11 case, if the dealer does not have a BJ, his hole card is (A,2-9). I realize these cases are not the same, but seem somewhat similar. Is the reason that 11 vs. 11 calls for a hit that the flexibility of an A is greater than that of a 10? In other words, both hole cards have the possibility of being a (2-9). The only difference is that the 11 vs. 10 may have a 10, and the 11 vs. 11 may have an A. I am guessing that the dealer is more likely to bust in the case of 11 vs. 10 than in the case of 11 vs. 11, which is why you double on the 11 vs. 10, but not the 11 vs. 11. Is this correct, non-mathematically speaking? I realize that it is not right to consider what the play should be intuitively, because everything is based on probability. However, if someone asked you to explain this non-mathematically, would my thought process be correct, in any way, shape, or form?
I hope this is not too jumbled. If it is I apologize. :)
-- Thanks, Homer J.
