I play SD/H17/DA2/NDaS/NLS with fair to good pen.
I typically will spread 1-6 by playing one unit on one hand and then 2 or 3 units on two hands. Recently I was reading from Gamemaster's blackjack school chapter 19... and something has caught my attention:
Since I would, whenever appropriate, play 2 hands, I'd need a table for the optimum bets for those situations. The rule here is that 56% of the advantage times the bankroll is the optimum bet for each of two hands. In other words, if it's correct for me to bet $25 on one hand, I would be over betting if I bet $25 on each of two hands at the same true count. Because of covariance (the relationship of two hands to one another), the optimum bet must be reduced.
I have never heard this argument before. Immediately I thought 'well that would mean if a ploppy is playing one hand next to me while I am playing one hand and the true count is +3... that since we are playing '2 hands' that it would be wrong to bet 3 units, and should instead bet less (as should he)'. Am I making sense?
I panicked when I felt I had been making errors all these years, but I am willing to correct my ways if someone can clarify this for me...
Thanks in advance...
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