player or house

If you play at a BJ game of HE .5% and a promotion is offered where 20% of whatever you lose on a certain night is given back to you.
Does this mean the HE is now .4% or have you an actual edge over the casino as you keep all you win?

ih8, Regardless of the edge in order to get the 20% you will have had to lose. If you can get this deal on a regular basis though, and only play when it is offered, the house edge will be reduced to .4. Hit 'em hard, The Side

A rebate of x% on losses is better than an x% reduction in house edge. For example, a 100% rebate on losses would be significantly better than a game with 0% house edge. This question is harder than it seems.

Yeah if playing roulette and just always bet on red then on average out of 37 spins i would win 10X18,lose 8X18 plus 10 for the zero,this is 180 - 154 = 26 so on average i would be up 26 out of 37 spins.
Is this correct?if so i think i should bet the table max
How do i apply this to blackjack

Sidewinder,i dont think it works that way.By your rational if i got back 100% of losses the HE is 0.but actually i would be in a no lose situation so the HE would be 100% negative as they will never make money off me

ih8, I was basically looking at it as the casino winning a certain amount from me which overall would be .5% of my buy-in. Then if they returned 20% of the amount lost from that buy-in it should reduce the amount they win by the same percentage. I'm looking at this more intuitively than mathamatically so it may not be correct. Hit 'em hard, The Side

Loss rebates usually apply to your net loss (if any) over the entire visit, not every losing bet. If you have a stop loss, you could increase it by 25% to account for the 20% rebate. The rebate does not justify increasing your bet.

Ok i am wrong it should be 10X18=180 means +180 on red.Then 10X18 = -180 on black and -10 for the zero so overall you lose 10X .8 = 8 instead of 10,so it cuts your losses and does not give me an advantage