How big was the advantage?

I had recently this situation playing at the Mirage(6D,S17,DA,LS,RSA,pen 75%, initial disadvantage = -0.26%): There were 2.5 decks left, the count was TC = +3, I played 2 hands, so I got 8,3 and 7,2, against 6 of the dealer.I doubled and got 8,3 +9 =20 and 7,2 + A = 20.The dealer had 2 (6+2 =8), so he hit with 4, then A, 3( making 16) and of course...5 to make 21!There were no 10s in the last 12 cards( I think the last card before these was 9, making no 10 in the last 13 cards, with this count!).I was wondering what exactly my advantage was( in percentage) before he had this 5 from hell.Any help would be great.The next round I got 4 tens( playing 2 hands) for 20 on both hands, but...he got 10 and...A of course:), so...it got quite ugly.Thanks in advance for your opinions.

"I was wondering what exactly my advantage was( in percentage) before he had this 5 from hell."

I think you mean RIGHT BEFORE the dealer got the 5. If dealer gets a 4, you have a draw; a 5, he wins; anything else, you win. I'll assume you want percentage of a unit bet, and you had two units bet (one for each hand). I used the multivariate normal assumption to cook up an approximation: +156.7% If you want the percentage of your total bet for that round, divide by two: +78.3%

I'd be surprised if the exact answer were more than a percent away. Make you feel better, or worse? ;-)

ETF

I mean the advantage to win the 2 hands compared to losing them( of course also of pushing them both).Yes, exactly before he got his 5 to make a 21.Also it is interesting to know my exact advantage( to be a winner) just after his two cards(6 +2 = 8) and having in mind TC = +3( before these 8 cards that appeared)and that 9 of the last cards were not 10.This makes a 10 for the dealer an automatic winner for me.Thanks ET for your answer.

"I mean the advantage to win the 2 hands compared to losing them( of course also of pushing them both)."

... +78.3%, if I understand you correctly.

"Also it is interesting to know my exact advantage( to be a winner) just after his two cards(6 +2 = 8) and having in mind TC = +3( before these 8 cards that appeared)and that 9 of the last cards were not 10.This makes a 10 for the dealer an automatic winner for me."

Much too complicated. I'd have to charge big time for that. ;)

ETF

Thanks, ET! The casino already charged me well:):)

"The dealer had 2 (6+2 =8), so he hit with 4, then A, 3( making 16) and of course...5 to make 21!"

I want a 2 page essay of what does "the count was TC = +3" mean to you.

No cheating. And, don't let bullies such as Et Fan and others get in your way. My sister is hall monitor.

ET Fan gave me a wrong answer.What does TC=+3 mean?Well, ask your sister.

"There were 2.5 decks left, the count was TC = +3"

That's being generous.

Dave

You have an opinion, which I do not share.Neither I care about your pathetic intents to be sarcastic.Please, discuss it with your sister.

Start with your basic strategy disadvantage and add your increase in advantage from your positive count. Smartass comments are undeserved and unwelcome.