Phil, I don't think I was clear. I'm interested in how your denominator is determined.
Don's result is the probability of encountering a single streak of 6 or more dealer tens in a row at the top of the shoe. To reproduce this by simulation, in strict terms, you would play rounds from the top of the shoe until one of a) the dealer is not dealt a ten or b) the dealer has been dealt 6 tens in a row. At that point you would record the result of one sample (yes or no), shuffle and repeat.
Now Don and I have both asserted that this result holds for any random point within the shoe where 6 rounds are guaranteed to be available. To verify this by simulation, you simply pick a random point in the shoe to begin rather than the top, making sure that there are enough cards remaining to complete at least 6 rounds, and do the same thing. Note that this is physically and mathematically equivalent to the dealer cutting the deck after shuffling.
Don has also asserted that the number of other players present and their actions have no bearing on this. To verify this by simulation, add additional players who play various strategies and repeat the two experiments above.
Your initial sim was a model of a player sitting at the table and playing shoe after shoe, allowing the streaks to span from one shoe to another. While the frequency of 6 or more dealer tens in a row under these conditions may also be a useful result, it is not quite the same as what Don calculated, although the resulting frequency should be quite close (and it was if I am not mistaken) .
Finally, I believe that you should be able to verify Don's result while playing full shoes but not allowing a streak to span two shoes, as you seem to have tried. In this case, you need to count all streaks of length 6 or more and to discard the data for initial dealer tens dealt within the final 5 rounds played in each shoe, since these rounds violate the condition of there being enough cards to complete 6 rounds.
by: Gronbog
My denominator is total number of rounds. My most recent numbers is for any occurrence of 6 in a row only within a shoe divided by total rounds.
With the method you outline above it sounds like approximately 1316 out of 1317 shoes would be shuffled away within the first 6 rounds. I understand if that’s how it’s calculated but seems very unusual for a simulation and would not happen in reality. It could likely be simulated though.
I my runs I was not solely counting 6 in a row off the top of each shoe and I am shuffling as normal with the cut card. I am resetting the 6 in a row count at the beginning of each shoe so that would discard the effect of 10s dealt in the final 5 rounds of previous shoe.