Hi everybody
I read in Kevin Blackwood's book that to calculate the value to you of a given hand you multiply the percent advantage or disadvantage by the wager. In making a decision as to whether to play a .58 disadvantage casino right by my house, or a .33 casino a 20 dollars in gas round trip from my house, does it therefore follow that I would have to have wagered 8000 dollars on a given trip before the advantage would be worth the cost of gas or is this not a correct way to look at it
.0025 * 8000 = 20
Thanks for any thoughts
David

