not an optimal max
At most games the optimal point for the max comes before +6, but it does vary by game.
ET Fan: This is a new one on me! Optimal by what standard?
Not new at all, at least five years old and probably older. See Yamashita's Kelly Generalization, which Thorp even mentions in his Montreal Kelly paper.
As you say, there is no optimal max. But there is an optimal point for THE max in a defined constrained spread. In a shoe game with poor pen it is generally at +3 to +4. In a more favorable game it is often +5 to +6.
Example: Let's say we define a constrained play all spread as 1:20. Let's use a poor game such as hi-lo, 4/6, S17,DAS. The optimal ramp would be:1,5,11,17,20. (5 unit bet @+1 w/20 unit bet@+4)
Now let's improve the penetration to 5/6 for the same game. The optimal ramp is now:1,3,7,11,15,20. We now don't reach the max until +5.
Now let's cut just a half deck off of six. The optimal ramp is:1,2,5,8,11,14,18,20. We don't reach the max until the TC is +7.
This method minimizes N0 in all cases, and maximizes growth to a defined ROR when not constrained by table limits. When we are constrained by table limits then one can decide whether to accept a lower DI game in exchange for higher hourly expectation. This would mean not using the optimal N0 ramp but rather betting each count at the max that our risk criterion allows.